this post was submitted on 26 Apr 2026
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[โ€“] Scubus@sh.itjust.works 1 points 3 days ago (1 children)

I dont know hebrew, but that does seem plasuable enough to me. My understanding is that different languages have different structures, and therefore its definitely plausible that hebrew has a "literal" structure. Similar to how we say literally, except we use it wrong a bunch.

Of course, I generally doubt anyone that says they know hebrew until they demonstrate it, so i doubt what they said was true, but I could understand how it might've been believable.

[โ€“] Kacarott@aussie.zone 1 points 1 day ago

Yeah, I could imagine there being some kind distinction in a language, such that it is always clear when one is making a metaphor as opposed to being literal. I also don't know if that actually applies to Hebrew.

But what baffled me was more that even if this were true, holding a belief that goes against pretty much all evidence, based purely on a grammatical quirk of an ancient culture. It's quite a stretch ๐Ÿ˜