this post was submitted on 26 Apr 2026
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[–] Kacarott@aussie.zone 11 points 4 days ago (4 children)

So I grew up around creationists. When I presented this idea, the only attempt at a justification I heard was something like "in the original Hebrew the word for a literal day was used, that's how we know creation happened in literal 6 days"

Which baffled me enough to shut me up, so that guy probably thinks he convinced me.

Original Hebrew? Anything in Hebrew that is supposedly from the "original" is a translation.

[–] RiceMunk@sopuli.xyz 17 points 4 days ago* (last edited 4 days ago)

Well duh, if they meant metaphorical day, they should have used the hebrew word for metaphorical days.

/s

[–] prole@lemmy.blahaj.zone 3 points 3 days ago

Which baffled me enough to shut me up, so that guy probably thinks he convinced me.

This seems to happen to me more frequently these days. Sometimes a person will say something so absurd that it just stops me in my tracks and I'm sure they think it means they "won"

[–] Scubus@sh.itjust.works 1 points 3 days ago (1 children)

I dont know hebrew, but that does seem plasuable enough to me. My understanding is that different languages have different structures, and therefore its definitely plausible that hebrew has a "literal" structure. Similar to how we say literally, except we use it wrong a bunch.

Of course, I generally doubt anyone that says they know hebrew until they demonstrate it, so i doubt what they said was true, but I could understand how it might've been believable.

[–] Kacarott@aussie.zone 1 points 1 day ago

Yeah, I could imagine there being some kind distinction in a language, such that it is always clear when one is making a metaphor as opposed to being literal. I also don't know if that actually applies to Hebrew.

But what baffled me was more that even if this were true, holding a belief that goes against pretty much all evidence, based purely on a grammatical quirk of an ancient culture. It's quite a stretch 😅