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Why was the baltic states less exploited than other post-soviet states? (hexbear.net)
submitted 2 weeks ago by Moidialectica@hexbear.net to c/asklemmygrad@lemmygrad.ml
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cross-posted from: https://hexbear.net/post/8024627

I see Baltic states being used as an example of why soviet communism was ineffective and unequal, and I am finding it harder to argue using statistics and polls due to the anti-communism, and the GDP fall being less sharp, and recovering quicker (as well as me being unable to find GDP PPP graphs for pre-1991 dates)

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[–] cfgaussian@lemmygrad.ml 0 points 2 weeks ago (1 children)

Almost certainly related to their strategic position for NATO as a thorn in Russia's side. Same with Poland which received enormous investment and help from the Americans and the West in general so they can be a bulwark against Russia.

[–] cornishon@lemmygrad.ml 0 points 2 weeks ago (2 children)

Funnily enough that's the same reason the Baltic states were often getting outsized investment from the Soviet Union.

[–] demeritum@lemmygrad.ml 0 points 2 weeks ago

They were also the richest parts of the Russian Empire due to tax benefits.

[–] muad_dibber@lemmygrad.ml 0 points 2 weeks ago

They were one of the main front lines of the cold war anyway.