Ask Lemmygrad

It's on Prolewiki's list of genocides if nothing else. "Israel"'s supreme court also in 2016 blocked the release of documents related to the apartheid state's involvement in providing weapons and training to Serb forces, specifically because doing so would "damage foreign relations". Was the Zionist entity sacrificing its PR just to prop up a fake genocide narrative in another country by making it seem like there's (actually non-existent) evidence being held back? Or was the Zionist entity protecting its PR in the face of a real genocide recognized by international tribunals^[Edit: To be clear, I'm not saying that international courts and tribunals are impartial or anything other than tools of imperialism, but there's still a reason why when imperialists make fake genocide allegations (as in Tibet and Xinjiang) they don't pursue official recognition in court.] in a way that the fake genocides in Tibet and Xinjiang never have been? Who knows! Not me! https://www.middleeastmonitor.com/20161209-israeli-court-rules-against-exposing-israels-role-in-bosnian-genocide/

I'll read the links provided by CFgaussian later, and maybe they'll convince me to the contrary, but I've been inclined to distrust when leftists say there was no Bosnian genocide, since it strikes me as a sort of "smolbeanification" of Serb ethnonationalists entirely on the basis of Serbia's geopolitical alignment.

Edit: Correction: Did not see that this news is from ten years ago! I just saw this in my news feed recently so I wrongly assumed it was recent news. Should've looked more closely at the publication date!