this post was submitted on 29 Apr 2025
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Physics

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[–] Wigners_friend@lemm.ee 0 points 1 year ago* (last edited 1 year ago)

If that were actually happening it would be astounding. But they never measure the particle in one arm and the spin in the other in the same run. They conduct different experiments for the two results. The two experiments have different conditional probabilities. In the first run the particle can only be in one arm of the experiment. The changes made for the "grin" experiment break this condition though. So the particle can be in the same place as the "grin". In short, there is no evidence the property was dissociated.